• Bubs@lemmy.zip
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    3 months ago

    Apparently this was the proof (I think? I have no real idea):

    Is there some function 𝑓⁡(𝑟) such that 𝑓⁡(𝑟) →∞ as 𝑟 →∞, such that, for infinitely many 𝑛, there exist > 𝑎1,𝑎2 with 𝑎1+𝑎2>𝑛+𝑓⁡(𝑟)⁢log⁡𝑛 such that 𝑎1!𝑎2! ∣𝑛!2𝑛⁢3𝑛⋯𝑝𝑛 𝑟?

    I have no idea what any of it means lol